Logo

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

13.06.2025 01:42

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

You'll usually find your answer there.

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

Phase-resolved attoclock precisely measures electron tunneling time - Phys.org

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

Robinhood Traders Playing S&P Index-Guessing Game Get Schooled - Bloomberg

There's no rule.

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

Samsung teases Galaxy Z Fold 7 with an absolutely bizarre ‘Ultra experience’ [Video] - 9to5Google

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.